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General What do we know about TTWCM?

If a father is in authority over his daughter, then for a daughter to marry without his permission is disobedience of authority. If that disobedience is permissible, then he was never truly in authority in the first place. So either permission is mandatory, or there is no such thing as parental authority.

Having said that, I fully agree that a marriage can be formed without that permission - but in saying that, your car can become my car without your permission either, if I steal it and manage to get away with it. Theft is a thing also. But the fact that theft is possible does not negate the fact that authority existed in the first place.

So your daughter requires your permission to marry, because you are in authority over her. Disobedience to your authority is sin. Yet, she is fully capable of sinning, as is her lover, and of running away and forming a marriage without your blessing. This is however still sin.
Some people would be willing to kill a whole city over a situation where a girl willingly went to be with a young man. A prince in fact. Even with all of that, the young man knew he was not yet married to her. Genesis 34.
 
Good point. I'll have to ponder this further:
You can’t. You know this. You can’t show me a verse saying a father’s permission is required. You can’t show me a verse that says it’s a sin to “steal” a daughter. It’s not.

Just like it’s not a sin for Christ to steal a daughter without her father’s permission. The husband is a senior position to father.
 
Some people would be willing to kill a whole city over a situation where a girl willingly went to be with a young man. A prince in fact. Even with all of that, the young man knew he was not yet married to her. Genesis 34.
The rapist? You’re trusting the pagan rapist to understand God’s plan for marriage? There is so little scripture to support your stance that you have to go to a pagan rapist?
 
One time:

So why are we trying to outline something in black and white that scripture doesn’t? How can you draw a hard fast rule, declare a sin, that God doesn’t?
So far, so good. In fact, "adding to," and "subtracting from" His Instruction (commandments, in this case) is explicitly prohibited no less than 3 times in Scripture.

Enough said, but it is important. And it is the ONLY proper way midrash from later letters, for example, can be properly understood in context.

...You can’t. You know this. You can’t show me a verse saying a father’s permission is required.
The father (at least twice, explicitly) has explicit VETO power over a daughter's (and wives') vows. That is not, repeat NOT, the same as "requiring permission." But it's arguably a good idea, certainly demonstrated by practice and tradition. (Even with brothers attempting to fill in.) Just not "required."

Yes, this has all been "done before."

(Samuel: I bristle at "show me the verse" for reasons you know well. Since YHVH 'changes NOT, and is the "same, yesterday, today, and tomorrow' that should be a more straightforward task than it sometimes seems to be here. I contend He meant it.)
 
One time:


So far, so good. In fact, "adding to," and "subtracting from" His Instruction (commandments, in this case) is explicitly prohibited no less than 3 times in Scripture.

Enough said, but it is important. And it is the ONLY proper way midrash from later letters, for example, can be properly understood in context.


The father (at least twice, explicitly) has explicit VETO power over a daughter's (and wives') vows. That is not, repeat NOT, the same as "requiring permission." But it's arguably a good idea, certainly demonstrated by practice and tradition. (Even with brothers attempting to fill in.) Just not "required."

Yes, this has all been "done before."

(Samuel: I bristle at "show me the verse" for reasons you know well. Since YHVH 'changes NOT, and is the "same, yesterday, today, and tomorrow' that should be a more straightforward task than it sometimes seems to be here. I contend He meant it.)
I’m fine with all of that until you imply that vows have something to do with marriage.
 
Matthew 19 records that Jesus is recalling the unity of man and woman calling it something the God has joined together. Paul contrasts that with the one flesh aspect with a prostitute. Question: Does God join the man and the prostitute? To follow that Jesus said that it should not be made asunder. How does one "make asunder?" This leads one to think that when a man has done the deed, he is not permitted to stop. The one flesh is supposed to be permanent. "DONT DO IT(divide asunder)" Jesus said. Unless of course "dividing asunder" doesnt mean ro stop having sex.
 
There MUST be some sort of agreement
Then show it to me in scripture. If not just be there then it just be there. Chapter and verse this thing and let’s get back to the lesbians.
Does God join the man and the prostitute?
Yes, the passage says it right there.
How does one "make asunder
Divorce or out away.
The one flesh is supposed to be permanent.
Careful, you’re about to find yourself in a very uncomfortable place, agreeing with me….
Unless of course "dividing asunder" doesnt mean ro stop having sex.
It kind of does, it kind of doesn’t. It means divorce, which means you stop having sex.
 
Dividing asunder can never mean divorce. To go thru it feels like one is getting cut open without anesthesia. But no, it is not divorce nor a type of divorce. Your bias is showing.
 
You have a rigid stance on cleaving and one flesh. These are intimately related but not the same. Gen 2:24 is the explanation and one of the first commands to our humanity. Leave- cleave-one flesh in that order.
Leave is simply to become a new family head.
Cleave is to divide (in spite of modern commentary's redefinition)
One flesh is the result of dividing the flesh. It is very simple. So simple in fact that people have done it without explanation for many millenia.
Now we codify it by giving it names and then society redefines it to justify their activity. Of course a man be one with another man and a woman with a woman but neither of those are one flesh.
 
Dividing asunder can never mean divorce. To go thru it feels like one is getting cut open without anesthesia. But no, it is not divorce nor a type of divorce. Your bias is showing.
When I look up “divide asunder” I only find Hebrews 4:12. That’s not a passage focused on one flesh or divorce. What am I missing?
 
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