Hello (and sorry if I'm posting this in the wrong section
).
In an unplanned, but made sense in the moment manner, I shared with my parents our discovery of what Biblical Marriage is and that it includes polygyny.
Silvio was on video call with me and listening to a conversation that we were all having and gave me the -go! Since then things have been interesting.
Reactions were both expected and unexpected. I thought my dad would be more open-minded, but at this moment he is kind of looking into it (I gave them a book we've been reading), but with the intent of proving it is anti-Biblical. My mother's questions are more emotional/logistics/sharing etc oriented. Though she also questions if this is Biblical. She is concerned this will be harmful to me and our son.
We understand that being presented with this information can be very jarring and hard to process after years and years of deeply ingrained beliefs to the contrary.
While we believe that Plural Marriage is Biblical, we are still in the process of having command of the information. In other words, we can't defend on the spot every argument and verse thrown at us against polygyny, from memory. Especially myself, I am fully convicted of this Biblical truth, but can't relay that understanding coherently, if that makes sense.
Right now though, I would say their biggest hangups are where is polygyny in the New Testament. That the Law is no more. That it isn't commanded. Fine, it was in the Old Testament, but done away with in the New Testament. Two verses that were brought up to me were Hebrews 8:13 and Hebrews 9:15-17.
I'm unsure if it would be helpful to know that we are Christians that attend church of Christ congregations. I provide this information in case it helps to know where we are coming from doctrine-wise.
All this to ask: can someone point me to any resource, whether it be posts on this forum (which I have a few tabs open of posts to read on here, that seemed relevant to this) or elsewhere that can help us clearly explain the idea that there was continuity from OT to NT, not that one completely stopped applying? We know there are Torah Observers, and that is not us, though we like hearing from anyone as we must always be open to learning and correcting if needed. We are coming from the position that God fulfilled the "ceremonial" and "judicial" parts of the law, not the unchanging moral law.
In essence the question is: How would you bridge the "gap" from OT to NT with regards to the Law and polygyny for a New Testament, believing Christian?
In an unplanned, but made sense in the moment manner, I shared with my parents our discovery of what Biblical Marriage is and that it includes polygyny.
Silvio was on video call with me and listening to a conversation that we were all having and gave me the -go! Since then things have been interesting.
Reactions were both expected and unexpected. I thought my dad would be more open-minded, but at this moment he is kind of looking into it (I gave them a book we've been reading), but with the intent of proving it is anti-Biblical. My mother's questions are more emotional/logistics/sharing etc oriented. Though she also questions if this is Biblical. She is concerned this will be harmful to me and our son.
We understand that being presented with this information can be very jarring and hard to process after years and years of deeply ingrained beliefs to the contrary.
While we believe that Plural Marriage is Biblical, we are still in the process of having command of the information. In other words, we can't defend on the spot every argument and verse thrown at us against polygyny, from memory. Especially myself, I am fully convicted of this Biblical truth, but can't relay that understanding coherently, if that makes sense.
Right now though, I would say their biggest hangups are where is polygyny in the New Testament. That the Law is no more. That it isn't commanded. Fine, it was in the Old Testament, but done away with in the New Testament. Two verses that were brought up to me were Hebrews 8:13 and Hebrews 9:15-17.
I'm unsure if it would be helpful to know that we are Christians that attend church of Christ congregations. I provide this information in case it helps to know where we are coming from doctrine-wise.
All this to ask: can someone point me to any resource, whether it be posts on this forum (which I have a few tabs open of posts to read on here, that seemed relevant to this) or elsewhere that can help us clearly explain the idea that there was continuity from OT to NT, not that one completely stopped applying? We know there are Torah Observers, and that is not us, though we like hearing from anyone as we must always be open to learning and correcting if needed. We are coming from the position that God fulfilled the "ceremonial" and "judicial" parts of the law, not the unchanging moral law.
In essence the question is: How would you bridge the "gap" from OT to NT with regards to the Law and polygyny for a New Testament, believing Christian?

