Just to keep up with "where I was coming from."
I'm trying also to paint in broad strokes so as not to initiate rabbit trail discussions. Translations are never exact because of the philosophy of language that Mark correctly points out. This has been known for a long time though. The discipline or area of study known as "Philology" predates computer science by a very long time. Prominent theologian and author CS Lewis was a "Philologist."
The point? I come down on the side that says blurred vision is not wrong vision. The passage 1st Corinthians 7:2 uses two different Greek words for "our" that translates to one English word and creates the impression of parallel meaning but also have the thin though real possibility of different use of a broad English term. Monogamy as marriage advocates often cite this passage to claim the superficial and apparent parallel in English as proof of a monogamy preference or intent by the LORD and by Paul. The possibility of the meaning in the Greek exists, but is not obvious to the reader in English. The meaning of the Greek is plain, the passage is not constructed in parallel.
What Mark is claiming (maybe drifting towards unknowingly) is that the Greek Gospels we have are flawed translations and Mark is pretty sure (based on concurrence with other translators or scholars) of what was ORIGINALLY written in another language and then translated to Greek.
The LORD has not abandoned us in this way. The New Testament Greek texts ARE reliable and ARE the inspired word of God. If they are not the originals, then I would assert that they were written alongside the originals by the authors that wrote the originals. Maybe Matthew was authored in Hebrew but I'd say it was authored in Greek or at least by the same author that wrote it in Hebrew or Aramaic. That's as far as I am willing to go. We're not waiting to find an original Hebrew or Aramaic testament to clear up the errors of translation that have crept in. I find the Peshite Aramaic Gospels fascinating because they provide a contemporary lens into the understanding of the people of that time period into the meaning of those Gospels. They are a tool. They are not the Holy Grail of Biblical meaning.
We have a Greek New Testament because (most likely) the Gospels were ONLY written ORIGINALLY in Greek. Likewise the letters. It pertains to this discussion because we are as Gentile Believers, Christians, because the Bible Tells Me So. Mark is wrong to assert that we were meant to hear some other description of our faith that has been lost (perhaps temporarily) to the sands of time. He is wrong to assert that he can figure out what we were supposed to have heard, that we didn't hear, because we're going to discover someday a Hebrew or Aramaic version of 1st Kefa. He is wrong to assert that he is here to tell us what we don't know, but he knows, because he's figured by reading the Greek what the Hebrew (or Aramaic) would have said, which he can then more properly translate to English and explain it to us.
We are CHRISTIANS. It is a perfectly good word. In Greek we were called "khrē-stē-ä-no's" (Χριστός), in Aramaic it was translated from the Greek epithet to "Kristyane." In Latin it was "Christiani." The author of 1st Peter (Kefa) used the word Χριστός. It is what we, the gentile believers of "that way" (a faith colored most strongly by the version of Judaism practiced by Pharisees) are. Christians. We are not Messianic Jews or "Messianics" as opposed to Christians.
I understand the "blurring" that comes with translation or I would not have said this. What I do not accept is that so much blurring has occurred that meaning is lost to the degree that our translations are in what I would call "consequential" error.I said:I'm not willing to blindly accept the claims of a translator. I give them weight, but that is all. A good deal of the reason I support the same form of Biblical Marriage that you do, is because I do not blindly follow guides, that may be, well, blind. Were I simply to follow around my theological 'betters' and take their word for it, I would not be here."
I'm trying also to paint in broad strokes so as not to initiate rabbit trail discussions. Translations are never exact because of the philosophy of language that Mark correctly points out. This has been known for a long time though. The discipline or area of study known as "Philology" predates computer science by a very long time. Prominent theologian and author CS Lewis was a "Philologist."
The point? I come down on the side that says blurred vision is not wrong vision. The passage 1st Corinthians 7:2 uses two different Greek words for "our" that translates to one English word and creates the impression of parallel meaning but also have the thin though real possibility of different use of a broad English term. Monogamy as marriage advocates often cite this passage to claim the superficial and apparent parallel in English as proof of a monogamy preference or intent by the LORD and by Paul. The possibility of the meaning in the Greek exists, but is not obvious to the reader in English. The meaning of the Greek is plain, the passage is not constructed in parallel.
Unfortunately Mark does seem to be making this claim. My position is that in the original texts, we have all the scripture in perfect inspiration that we were meant to have. I did not make a claim that the translations were similarly inspired, but I do think they are reliable.I said:(T)his is a disturbing claim that the most authoritative texts we have, were altered improperly, and unreliable. What we have in the scriptures available to us, are exactly the revelation of God that we were meant to have. They contain no lies. "
What Mark is claiming (maybe drifting towards unknowingly) is that the Greek Gospels we have are flawed translations and Mark is pretty sure (based on concurrence with other translators or scholars) of what was ORIGINALLY written in another language and then translated to Greek.
The LORD has not abandoned us in this way. The New Testament Greek texts ARE reliable and ARE the inspired word of God. If they are not the originals, then I would assert that they were written alongside the originals by the authors that wrote the originals. Maybe Matthew was authored in Hebrew but I'd say it was authored in Greek or at least by the same author that wrote it in Hebrew or Aramaic. That's as far as I am willing to go. We're not waiting to find an original Hebrew or Aramaic testament to clear up the errors of translation that have crept in. I find the Peshite Aramaic Gospels fascinating because they provide a contemporary lens into the understanding of the people of that time period into the meaning of those Gospels. They are a tool. They are not the Holy Grail of Biblical meaning.
We have a Greek New Testament because (most likely) the Gospels were ONLY written ORIGINALLY in Greek. Likewise the letters. It pertains to this discussion because we are as Gentile Believers, Christians, because the Bible Tells Me So. Mark is wrong to assert that we were meant to hear some other description of our faith that has been lost (perhaps temporarily) to the sands of time. He is wrong to assert that he can figure out what we were supposed to have heard, that we didn't hear, because we're going to discover someday a Hebrew or Aramaic version of 1st Kefa. He is wrong to assert that he is here to tell us what we don't know, but he knows, because he's figured by reading the Greek what the Hebrew (or Aramaic) would have said, which he can then more properly translate to English and explain it to us.
We are CHRISTIANS. It is a perfectly good word. In Greek we were called "khrē-stē-ä-no's" (Χριστός), in Aramaic it was translated from the Greek epithet to "Kristyane." In Latin it was "Christiani." The author of 1st Peter (Kefa) used the word Χριστός. It is what we, the gentile believers of "that way" (a faith colored most strongly by the version of Judaism practiced by Pharisees) are. Christians. We are not Messianic Jews or "Messianics" as opposed to Christians.