[This is not a post specifically related to the most immediate comments but more to some others since my last post in this thread earlier today.]
Can we say "wishful thinking" and "confirmation bias" when it comes to thinking (a) that raping one's half-sister is just a marriage proposal or that (b) consent from the woman meant or means
nothing or that (c) any of this discussion applies to real life in 2022 or any time in the past two millennia in the wake of Yeshua's 2nd commandment: treat everyone with whom one associates in a manner that one would want to be treated [Matthew 22:39; also Luke 6:31].
The logic seems to be that all one need do after raping one's half-sister is to go ask one's father for her hand in marriage and pay a virgin bride price before riding off into the incestual sunset. The absolute most charitable thing I can think of to compare this to is to assert that it's a more troublesome but analogical equivalent to shoplifting from a store and then expecting, and only if one is actually
caught, that the only required justice would be having to pay the original price for the item one stole. In this case Amnon stole Tamar's
entire honor -- and he was angry with
her!
Sorry. That's not how things work in this real world or the one 2.5 millennia ago -- except perhaps under the 'protection' of a father who lacked moral authority in the wake of what he'd done to Uriah the Hittite and Bathsheba.
It's not just a matter of extra-biblical sources that identify the importance of humiliation in the cultural understanding of King David's time. The direct scriptural circumstances of Amnon and Tamar even address the humiliation concern [
underlined emphasis added by me]: "
When she brought [the heart-shaped cakes he'd requested]
close to him to eat, he held her fast and said to her, Come, lie down
with me, my sister. Yet she replied to him, Do not, my brother, do not humiliate me, for such a thing
should not be done in Israel! Do not commit this decadent thing
! And I, whither should I carry my reproach? And you, you would
become like one of the decadent men
in Israel. So now I pray, speak to the king [their shared father], for he will not withhold me from you. But he would not hearken to her voice; he was more
unyielding than she; he humiliated her and lay with
her. [II Samuel 13:11-15, Concordant Version of the Old Testament]
We know that Tamar's full brother Absalom avenged her humiliation, but we do not learn why their father looked the other way in the matter (we
do know he looked the other way, because we know full well, given how much men revere virgins, that the crime of raping a virgin was already considered more heinous than adultery in all cultures of the time and even earlier: Hittite Law; Middle Assyrian; Hammurabi) other than that he loved Amnon because he was his firstborn (a hint at ruling-class exemption from full justice presaging Hunter and the Big Guy?). What we also know was that the rape in question was considered worse, more humiliating, than incest, because in the midst of being coerced, despite not wanting Amnon at all as a partner, Tamar pled with him to ask David for her --
she preferred being known as an incestuous wife to the humiliation of having been raped.
I've become a strong advocate for full-throated patriarchy, but I'm dismayed if what I'm hearing is the assertion that being a patriarch includes the freedom to rape a woman into marriage. I was going to go to some significant effort to research exactly where I learned that, circa 1000 BC, the accepted understanding of adultery included other forms of sexual humiliation (including, by the way, husbands bragging in public about specific sex acts performed on them by their wives in order to embarrass them), but at the moment I'm really wondering what the point is if the perspective I'm debating with holds that a woman should be expected to be a virgin before marriage but can legitimately be
forced without even her father's consent to enter into a sexual relationship just because some other man doesn't feel like following proper protocol.
Here's what I'm also wondering: how many of us are praying for a world in which the rules of 1000 BC regarding when TTWCM begins would return to being in place? How many desire a return to women being treated as chattel? How many want the reinstitutionalization of entirely-arranged marriages or being able to sell our daughters? Is
anything that has changed since 60 AD qualified to be considered progress, or are we forbidden from finding any substantive value in any writing aside from Scripture? In the chronologically-final book of The Bible, Paul asserts in II Timothy that, "
All scripture is
inspired by
God, and is beneficial for teaching, for exposure, for correction, for discipline in righteousness, that the man of God may be equipped, fitted out for every good act." [II Timothy 3:16-17, CLNT] But Paul also earlier asserted in the same letter [2:15] that one should rightly divide, or accurately handle, the Word. He also warned of coming false teachers in this letter to Timothy, and I believe we, myself included, should always be on alert for inadvertently falling into that particular snare. Context is, of course,
primarily scriptural, but to attempt to entirely separate Scripture from its own context is bound to violate all manner of the Wisdom found in Proverbs and elsewhere.
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