• Biblical Families is not a dating website. It is a forum to discuss issues relating to marriage and the Bible, and to offer guidance and support, not to find a wife. Click here for more information.

Trouble Confidently Explaining How Polygyny is Still Biblical in NT

I have found some want to use the words of Jesus quoting Genesis "For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother and cleave to his wife and they twain shall be one flesh" as a limiting thing (because wife is singular and twain is two) but Jesus was NOT asked "how many marriages can a man have?" So the answer from Jesus was addressing "putting away" wives.

. . .

Jesus also said if a man puts away a wife and marries another ......it causes adultery NOT if he keeps her and marries another. (See the first verse above)

So again, WHY would Moses write all this instruction if that verse in Genesis limited a man to one wife?

All was quiet on this front for a few days for me, but we are back at it today.

The more I review the same arguments to be able to refute them, the more I see it, but I guess if this information is new to you or depending on the level of bias/monogamy-only filters, I can state this numerous times (what you've pointed out) and it comes back to Genesis 2:24 and Matthew 19 referencing Genesis 2:24 and how that's the ideal.

Even IF it's the ideal . . . that still doesn't mean it's a sin or not allowed under the New Covenant, which is what is being argued (that it's a sin).

And I keep reminding them, regardless of whether you personally like it or not, you need to figure out your answer to the question: is this Biblically allowed? Most other discussion is pointless until they can answer that question.

A common error used to argue against polygyny is that it "always causes problems, and nothing good ever came about through polygyny." Again, start with what is written; anchor your response to the Word of God, so that those anchored to the erroneous beliefs and ideas of men might be convicted by the truth.

Adam and Eve were monogamous. It was through this monogamous couple sin, suffering, and death came into the world and impacted ALL of humanity. They raised an angry son who became the first murderer. No other couple has brought so much suffering and disaster on so many.

Jacob was polygynous. It was through him and his four wives twelve sons were born who became the twelve tribes of Israel. Through the tribe of Judah came the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ who gave His life to saves sinners, reconciling them to God. No greater blessing has come upon humanity than salvation by the grace of God through faith in Jesus Christ.

There are some good marriages and some bad marriages, and it doesn't make any difference how many marriages a man may simultaneously have. What makes the difference is the people's obedience, or lack there of, to Almighty God.

Agreed! I am continually trying to make this point.
Today the whole Lamech was a bad man/polygynist was brought up.

There is SO much that we read into the Bible that is not there or do so out habit because that's what we've been taught and heard all our lives.

Once you look past the notion that it was not the structure of having more than one wife which obviously caused the issue, you see it was the sins/actions/reactions etc. of those within that Marital/Familial structure.

What bible are you using looks like a nice greek interlinear that id like to get my hands on?
Thanks for asking because I had been wondering the same!
I will get a Pic of the cover page when I get home. Here is the parable of the ten virgins showing how they changed the meaning.

Marriages (plural) turned into wedding (singular) festivities (plural).

Gotta tow the Roman Catholic party line!
And thanks for sharing!

why would you be having any problem then? is the permission of polygamy a ceremonial or judicial concern?

I wouldn't think so! We have been trying to reconcile this "antinomian" mindset that until earlier in this thread we had never heard that term to describe coC beliefs.

The excerpt below is from a church of Christ congregation website, and after reading it has me wondering how someone can believe what is written below, but still think that Plural Marriage is outright forbidden in the New Testament.


". . . then you should also understand that God wrote both the Law of Moses and the Law of Christ. The Law of Moses is no longer in effect, being replaced by the Law of Christ. "He takes away the first that He may establish the second" (Hebrews 10:9). But we recognize that the Old Law had the same author and when it comes to matters of right and wrong, these things really don't change even though the law we are under has changed. For example, the New Testament is clear that lying is wrong (Revelation 21:8). But if I would like to present how God treated liars in the past or to get greater details about just what constitutes lying, I can turn to God's Old Law for illustrations. As Paul points out, "Now all these things happened to them as examples, and they were written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the ages have come" (I Corinthians 10:11). But notice that we first establish from Christ's law what is required of us and then we turn to Moses' Law for illumination.


There is precedence for doing so in the pages of the New Testament. When making various points, both Jesus and the Apostles often backed up their assertions by quoting what God had said before. As an example: "Therefore, putting away lying, "Let each one of you speak truth with his neighbor," for we are members of one another. "Be angry, and do not sin": do not let the sun go down on your wrath, nor give place to the devil" (Ephesians 4:25-27). Notice there are two quotes, one from Zechariah 8:16 and the other from Psalms 4:4. The quotations do not establish the law, but they serve to illustrate the consistency of God's expectations upon mankind.


Thus, we take all of the Bible seriously because we can learn much from the prior law as well as from our law. "For whatever things were written before were written for our learning, that we through the patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope" (Romans 15:4). For authority for today's practices, we go to the New Testament. To illustrate what is meant we can use the Old Testament."


This same website has various articles discussing how Scripturally, polygyny is a no no in the New Testament! It hurts the brain! 😩


At the end of the day, we're not waiting for my parents permission or approval, but it would be nice for them to come to the understanding that this is Biblical. This is also a great time to continue to sharpen our knowledge and ability to discuss this and "defend" that we are standing on Scripture on this issue, and not just doing this because we are "curious" or other little jabs that have been made about why either of us would even consider this. We want to continue to honor and respect them through all this knowing that at some point they will have to choose whether they want to continue to be part of our lives, or separate from us (which would of course be very painful) if they believe we are sinning, if the time comes that the Lord does add another wife to our family.
 
some of my teachers are very serious and studious reformed pronomians, and an answer as to the validity of their theory of law as being multi-part and partly nullified is not forthcoming.

i havent confirmed for sure but it might just be bs. it's certainly not the prima-facie proposition it gets treated as.

i maintain that jesus never changed or "elevated" the law. it's harder to demonstrate with paul.

anyway this article is telling you a reason to take leviticus seriously, im not seeing anything saying which parts not to, and why.
 
then you should also understand that God wrote both the Law of Moses and the Law of Christ. The Law of Moses is no longer in effect, being replaced by the Law of Christ. "He takes away the first that He may establish the second" (Hebrews 10:9). But we recognize that the Old Law had the same author and when it comes to matters of right and wrong, these things really don't change even though the law we are under has changed.
How’s that for inconsistency and confusion?

It’s not left, it’s right, but if you go right, you can also turn left. You only go one direction but if you decide to turn back, you’re still going in the same path, you just have to double back and course correct to align back with the reverse direction. (Sarcasm)
 
some of my teachers are very serious and studious reformed pronomians, and an answer as to the validity of their theory of law as being multi-part and partly nullified is not forthcoming.

i havent confirmed for sure but it might just be bs. it's certainly not the prima-facie proposition it gets treated as.

i maintain that jesus never changed or "elevated" the law. it's harder to demonstrate with paul.

anyway this article is telling you a reason to take leviticus seriously, im not seeing anything saying which parts not to, and why.

Well Paul is the one who is translated wrongly the most and often confusing on his own. He is the only Apostle who other Apostles tell us is confusing, as a warning. Paul literally had to stand on a high point in front of the people of Jerusalem to clear up the fact that people were taking him out of context, and that he still believes in the Torah instructions.

The idea that Paul was doing away with anything comes from 150 ad and later as a result of antisemitism.
 
This same website has various articles discussing how Scripturally, polygyny is a no no in the New Testament! It hurts the brain! 😩
A no no based on what? We have liberty in Christ ...except for these new rules that YHWH did not speak?

You can ALWAYS flip the script on these double minded ...unstable....um....people.

The verse that says Bishops must be the husband of Mia wife.....absolutely implies that non bishops are NOT SO INSTRUCTED.

YHWH says He does not change! ...and the scriptures tell us that Jesus Christ is the same yesterday today and FOREVER!

The burden of proof is squarely on those CONTRADICTING the scriptures claiming His morality has changed.
 
The excerpt below is from a church of Christ congregation website, and after reading it has me wondering how someone can believe what is written below, but still think that Plural Marriage is outright forbidden in the New Testament.

". . . then you should also understand that God wrote both the Law of Moses and the Law of Christ. The Law of Moses is no longer in effect, being replaced by the Law of Christ. "He takes away the first that He may establish the second" (Hebrews 10:9). But we recognize that the Old Law had the same author and when it comes to matters of right and wrong, these things really don't change even though the law we are under has changed. For example, the New Testament is clear that lying is wrong (Revelation 21:8). But if I would like to present how God treated liars in the past or to get greater details about just what constitutes lying, I can turn to God's Old Law for illustrations. As Paul points out, "Now all these things happened to them as examples, and they were written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the ages have come" (I Corinthians 10:11). But notice that we first establish from Christ's law what is required of us and then we turn to Moses' Law for illumination.


There is precedence for doing so in the pages of the New Testament. When making various points, both Jesus and the Apostles often backed up their assertions by quoting what God had said before. As an example: "Therefore, putting away lying, "Let each one of you speak truth with his neighbor," for we are members of one another. "Be angry, and do not sin": do not let the sun go down on your wrath, nor give place to the devil" (Ephesians 4:25-27). Notice there are two quotes, one from Zechariah 8:16 and the other from Psalms 4:4. The quotations do not establish the law, but they serve to illustrate the consistency of God's expectations upon mankind.


Thus, we take all of the Bible seriously because we can learn much from the prior law as well as from our law. "For whatever things were written before were written for our learning, that we through the patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope" (Romans 15:4). For authority for today's practices, we go to the New Testament. To illustrate what is meant we can use the Old Testament."
After reading the article you linked I have to conclude those people can only interpret the Old Testament Scriptures based upon what is written in the New Testament. Therefore the OT saints must not have been able to obey God until they read the NT Scriptures. Wow, God should have given the NT first so everyone would be able to understand the OT.... . What a revelation! :oops:
 
Back
Top