rob in cal
New Member
No two people are alike, and people's sexual desires can be quite different. I'm wondering if any plural wife husband on this board is dealing with wives with greatly differing sexual desires. If for instance one wife is hardly ever interested in sexual activity and the other is very interested? Is it ok to have, say, 90% of sexual intimacy with the one wife, 10% with the other? Seems to me that as long as all three people are happy with this, that that would be find Biblically and morally.
Without getting too detailed about this, how does one handle a situation where the husband is rotating his nights with the two wives equally, and for instance is going to sleep with the non-interested wife (call her wife 1) one night, finds himself desirous of sexual contact with one of his wives. Would it be ok to have sexual relations with the other wife (wife 2) and then go to sleep with the wife 1, as it was his night to be with wife 1?
Without getting too detailed about this, how does one handle a situation where the husband is rotating his nights with the two wives equally, and for instance is going to sleep with the non-interested wife (call her wife 1) one night, finds himself desirous of sexual contact with one of his wives. Would it be ok to have sexual relations with the other wife (wife 2) and then go to sleep with the wife 1, as it was his night to be with wife 1?