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Unease over a comparison . . .

Lila

Member
Female
I was wondering if the verse below is consequently to mean that menstruation deserves Yahweh's wrath??????

I was astounded by the comparison so figuratively tied to woman's cycle that I just couldn't but see what you guys' comments are...

Ezechiel 36
Moreover Yahweh’s word came to me, saying, 17 Son of man, when the house of Israel lived in their own land, they defiled it by their way and by their doings: their way before me was as the uncleanness of a woman in her impurity. 18 Therefore I poured out my wrath on them for the blood which they had poured out on the land, and because they had defiled it with their idols; 19 and I scattered them among the nations, and they were dispersed through the countries: according to their way and according to their doings I judged them.
 
We must be clean to approach YHWH (either in the physical earthly temple when it existed, or in His heavenly temple at the resurrection).

Many things make a person unclean (touching a dead body, menstruation, sex - just read through Leviticus etc). After becoming unclean, a person had to be cleansed before being able to worship at the temple, and part of that cleansing involved immersion in water. There's nothing wrong with touching dead bodies, having sex, or menstruating - but they do make someone "unclean", and needed cleansing before that person could enter the temple.

Here YHWH says that the people were constantly unclean and defiled the land. Like a menstruating woman, they would need cleansing before they could approach Him. But they would not be cleansed, they continued to be defiled. So he punished them.

We also start unclean, and must be cleansed by Yeshua's sacrifice. We are also immersed in water (water baptism, but it's not just a new testament thing) as a sign of this cleansing. Once saved and cleansed, we can approach YHWH's throne. If we reject the cleansing through Yeshua's sacrifice we too would be punished.

That's my take on it anyway, I stand open to correction!
 
Like a menstruating woman, they would need cleansing before they could approach Him.

I got you! I wonder why is the wording so hard to understand/ follow! If it had been written like you just suggested, I would have had no reason to ask the question in first place.

We must be clean to approach YHWH (either in the physical earthly temple when it existed, or in His heavenly temple at the resurrection).

And how about "don’t you know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit which is in you, which you have from God?" (1 Corinthians 6:19)? Does that not qualify as for the temple being us now?
 
I wonder why is the wording so hard to understand/ follow!
Because the church doesn't teach what "uncleanness" actually is. The church just talks about "sin" and "not-sin", not "clean" and "unclean". Because of this we read "unclean" and think "sin", which is false. The reason this wording is so hard to understand is simply because we haven't been taught what the words mean. Once we understand the meaning of the words, everything becomes clearer - but I'm still coming to grips with understanding it myself.
 
The fundamental job of our religious leaders that is neglected by the church, leaving us in confusion:
Ezekiel 44:23 "[the priests] shall teach my people the difference between the holy and the common, and cause them to discern between the unclean and the clean."
 
I think that the woman's cycle part was referring to an ongoing uncleanness. They weren't stopping their behavior. God's wrath was about innocent blood being shed and idol worship.

This touches on an issue that we have to be very careful about. If we only take certain verses or issues then it can look like God hates women and we can drive them away from the truth. God loves women and says many beautify things about them.

Its important to remember that sex, which He created and even commanded, also makes us unclean. So uncleanness is not sinfulness as FH points out.

I am starting to look into whether the cleanliness laws were fulfilled anyway. I'm starting to lean towards yes although I still think its a good idea to follow them.
 
"Be holy, for I am holy." 1 Peter 1:16.

Hehe, by the way, this new testament passage is a quote from the old testament. Anyone ever notice what was being discussed in the old testament quote? Because it is a quote the reason behind the original is, I think, intended by Peter.

Tim
 
Interesting. It could be quoted from three separate passages in Leviticus (11:44, 19:2 and 20:7). All three relate to following the Mosaic Law, all three being in a discussion of a different part of that law (food, sabbath, witchcraft etc). Good point.
 
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