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Romans 7:2-3

Romans 7:2-3
2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

Simple answer, no! Polygamy (polygyny) is about a man having two or more wives. These verses would only be applicable if a man took another man's wife as his own. This would make the latter and the woman adulterer and adultress.
 
John is correct on this one (Pretty much always). Remember the way David comitted adultrey was because he slept another mans wife and killed her husband in the process as to not be accused of adultry. Although it was still adultry cause the death was at the hands of the man who slept with that mans wife.

John Whitten said:
Romans 7:2-3
2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

Simple answer, no! Polygamy (polygyny) is about a man having two or more wives. These verses would only be applicable if a man took another man's wife as his own. This would make the latter and the woman adulterer and adultress.
 
The Bible never condemns having more than one wife.

In Deuteronomy 25:5-10 GOD commands it.

Deuteronomy 25:5-10

5If brethren dwell together, and one of them die, and have no child, the wife of the dead shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband's brother shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and perform the duty of an husband's brother unto her.

6And it shall be, that the firstborn which she beareth shall succeed in the name of his brother which is dead, that his name be not put out of Israel.

7And if the man like not to take his brother's wife, then let his brother's wife go up to the gate unto the elders, and say, My husband's brother refuseth to raise up unto his brother a name in Israel, he will not perform the duty of my husband's brother.

8Then the elders of his city shall call him, and speak unto him: and if he stand to it, and say, I like not to take her;

9Then shall his brother's wife come unto him in the presence of the elders, and loose his shoe from off his foot, and spit in his face, and shall answer and say, So shall it be done unto that man that will not build up his brother's house.

10And his name shall be called in Israel, The house of him that hath his shoe loosed.

GOD did not care if you already have a wife or two wives, you still have to marry her IF your brother didn't have a son with her! If he had a son with her you were off the hook.
 
Romans 7 condemns a woman from marrying more than one man as does Deuteronomy 22. These passages do not condemn a man marrying more than one woman.
 
bobalone said:
Do not these verses condem a poly life style?

Romans 7:2-3
2 For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. 3 So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.

These passages would speak against polyandry (FMM+) but not polygyny. It says nothing about polygyny since these verses mention nothing about a man having sexual relations with a woman while his wife is still alive. It's all about the woman and her sexual relations while her husband is alive.
 
I would be interested in reading any opinion on this from the monogamy side explaining how it causes polygyny to be considered sinful in any way. I simply cannot make the connection myself so maybe someone could help me out a little. ;)
 
said:
But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.

They give a widow permission to marry a man. A married man is a man. She is not an adulterous if she marries a married man. These verses support polygyny because if a woman marries a married man, the man has at least two wives afterward and she is not an adulterous.

They forbid a man from marrying a married woman (who is married to another man presently) and forbid a married woman from marrying a second man (while she is married to the first.)
 
Brother Chris said:
The Bible never condemns having more than one wife.

In Deuteronomy 25:5-10 GOD commands it.

Deuteronomy 25:5-10

5If brethren dwell together, and one of them die, and have no child, the wife of the dead shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband's brother shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and perform the duty of an husband's brother unto her.

6And it shall be, that the firstborn which she beareth shall succeed in the name of his brother which is dead, that his name be not put out of Israel.

7And if the man like not to take his brother's wife, then let his brother's wife go up to the gate unto the elders, and say, My husband's brother refuseth to raise up unto his brother a name in Israel, he will not perform the duty of my husband's brother.

8Then the elders of his city shall call him, and speak unto him: and if he stand to it, and say, I like not to take her;

9Then shall his brother's wife come unto him in the presence of the elders, and loose his shoe from off his foot, and spit in his face, and shall answer and say, So shall it be done unto that man that will not build up his brother's house.

10And his name shall be called in Israel, The house of him that hath his shoe loosed.

GOD did not care if you already have a wife or two wives, you still have to marry her IF your brother didn't have a son with her! If he had a son with her you were off the hook.

Well saying that God is commanding is not correct either. It is not specified whether or not the man is married. It is saying that the brother is to care for her.
 
JazzyTs said:
Well saying that God is commanding is not correct either. It is not specified whether or not the man is married. It is saying that the brother is to care for her.

Mmmm. Not quite. He is instructed to take her as his own wife, and their first child (some think first male child) will be counted as the brother's.

The man is, of course, free to refuse, but consequences ARE specified. God does seem to take it seriously, witness the demise of Onan.

The point being made is that the passage contains no exception for a man who may already be married. That is apparently irrelevant. That being the case, in SOME limited number of cases, obedience would require what we have differentiated as "plural marriage".

The Bible does not differentiate. It is just marriage. We're the ones who feel the need to keep count due to the heresy introduced into Christianity in particular during the 300s AD ... blah, blah, blah. :D
 
CecilW said:
JazzyTs said:
Well saying that God is commanding is not correct either. It is not specified whether or not the man is married. It is saying that the brother is to care for her.

Mmmm. Not quite. He is instructed to take her as his own wife, and their first child (some think first male child) will be counted as the brother's.

The man is, of course, free to refuse, but consequences ARE specified. God does seem to take it seriously, witness the demise of Onan.

The point being made is that the passage contains no exception for a man who may already be married. That is apparently irrelevant. That being the case, in SOME limited number of cases, obedience would require what we have differentiated as "plural marriage".

The Bible does not differentiate. It is just marriage. We're the ones who feel the need to keep count due to the heresy introduced into Christianity in particular during the 300s AD ... blah, blah, blah. :D
Ahh the difference in bible translations! I'm glad I have many differnt bibles. It seems that wording is everying in this day and age. According to all the bibles that I have, including a 1300s Wycliffe, it does say, in any number of different words, that the brother in law is to "take her as his wife" or, "take her and marry her" etc. etc.
Now in the King James, which is the one used here in the quote I am assuming, it does not say aything with regard to gender of the child but yes, in other translations, such as the NIV, it does specify "male". Anyway, I just wanted to toss that out there.
 
Also if the brothers are not living together Deuteronomy 25 does not apply marriage as a requirement.

Or if the brother has a son with one of his multiple wives but not at least one each for all of them (the women?) Or is it at least one son for each women?

"living together and one of them dies without a son"

5 If brothers are living together and one of them dies without a son, his widow must not marry outside the family. Her husband’s brother shall take her and marry her and fulfill the duty of a brother-in-law to her. 6 The first son she bears shall carry on the name of the dead brother so that his name will not be blotted out from Israel.

Also he can choose to not marry her even if they are living together and she did not have a son?

7 However, if a man does not want to marry his brother’s wife, she shall go to the elders at the town gate and say, “My husband’s brother refuses to carry on his brother’s name in Israel. He will not fulfill the duty of a brother-in-law to me.” 8 Then the elders of his town shall summon him and talk to him. If he persists in saying, “I do not want to marry her,” 9 his brother’s widow shall go up to him in the presence of the elders, take off one of his sandals, spit in his face and say, “This is what is done to the man who will not build up his brother’s family line.” 10 That man’s line shall be known in Israel as The Family of the Unsandaled.

Is there an exemption if the brother died of HIV AIDS?
 
He can still refuse to marry her, but he will have to bear the shame as Shoeless Joe

;)

JESUS IS ALIVE!!

Doc
 
DiscussingTheTopic said:
Also if the brothers are not living together Deuteronomy 25 does not apply marriage as a requirement.

I believe that if you will check other translations, you will see that the connotation is that the brothers live in harmony, rather than as antagonists. Why? It would be mean of God to require you to marry the wife of and raise up a son for your sworn enemy. Worse, if I died, and a bgrother with whom I was at enmity raised up a son to bear my name and inherit my property, what would he TEACH that child about me, his titular father? 'Twould about be enough to make me come BACK!

Proof? Ruth and Boaz. Neither Boaz nor the nearer kinsman lived with Ruth and her husband in Moab. In fact, if a brother is not available, the law was applied by searching for the next nearest kinsman, starting with Dear Old Dad, if he was available -- witness Judah and his step-daughter.

Aids? No problem. Use the divine healing that God entrusted to us as Christians to get her healed, then fulfill your honorable duty. However, if you don't know about, or are unable to perform the healing, better hold off. I know of whole villages in Africa that have been decimated after an ill advised American "missionary / apostle" told them to disregard that and marry the women anyway.
 
CecilW said:
Aids? No problem. Use the divine healing that God entrusted to us as Christians to get her healed, then fulfill your honorable duty.

I think I will use the divine common sense to not..... :?

CecilW said:
However, if you don't know about, or are unable to perform the healing, better hold off.
 
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