in spite of certain "usurper" contentions to the contrary!
)
I'm not sure who you are referring to here. usurper?
But I would also contend with almost equal fervor that "ALL" is hardly even REMOTELY "fulfilled"
So which parts of the Law are not fulfilled? I noticed that the parts that you quoted as not being fulfilled are some of the prophecies from long after the law was given (Damascus) or prophecy that wasnt even given when Jesus was making the comment in Matthew 5 (Revelation). Jesus only stated that one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. To use something not included in the statement (prophecy) as negative evidence is a bit misleading.
Also, if all isn't fulfilled as you claim, why would Jesus know "that all things were now accomplished that the Scripture might be fulfilled" in John 19:28 Perhaps you are defining a larger "all" than Jesus was.
Could the astronomical phenomena occurring during the Crucifixion be a fulfillment of Heaven and earth "passing" based on the definition of the Greek word used in this instance, parerchomai Strongs #3928? If not, why not?
This was my question.
I'm sure you are attempting disdain or some other hard to convey emotion, however, "Pul-ease" neither answers the question nor gives background for your answer.
Last I looked, yes, BOTH are still there. And please don't insult anyone's intelligence by trying to deny the obvious. Especially if it makes Yahushua out to be a liar.
It doesn't take much intelligence to recognize that the earth and heaven are still there. It does however require a bit more to examine a different point of view that challenges a preconceived bias. Even more to debate a topic without resorting to childish projections.
no - He NEVER calls them "Jewish holy days" - they are HIS,
Perhaps Isaiah was speaking out of line when he wrote for God, Your new moons and your appointed feasts (mow'ed) my soul hateth: they are a trouble unto me; I am weary to bear them. Is 1:14 Last I checked, the passage is addressed to the Jews about their new moons and their appointed feasts or holy days. What am I missing?
Finally, concerning "ha olam" which is often rendered as "forever" but really more directly translates as 'the world', or even 'all that is'/everything...
yes, it's good to understand the Hebrew words used, in context.
In context is critical. I'd be interested to know the source of your direct translation. I went through and studied out the uses and context for the word (Strongs #5769) everywhere it occurs in scripture. It is true that it has been translated using the word "world" (1 time out of 439 times) but nowhere that I could find "all that is/everything.
Rather, my Hebrew Lexicon gives the definition for owlam as: A distant time in the past or future, as a time hidden from the present
The same word that is used to describe something infinite is also used to describe something finite as well as the word never. Context is everything and each use of "owlam" must be subject to how the subject is limited or defined by that passage as well as the rest of Scripture. Just because a passage uses the word owlam doesnt necessarily mean to infinity . . . and beyond.
Which is about as close to a to a tautology as you'll find, especially given multiple translations from His original language.
Surely, you don't expect me to give you a pass on this. References will be necessary.
But to leap to the claim that it must have "NOTHING to do with genetics" is utterly unsupportable.
Obviously the genetic manipulation had something to do with the destruction. But those genetic changes (giants, weird animals etc) were a thing of the past after the Flood. What scriptural support do you have that would make you think that they had any bearing on how God changed specifically His dietary commands?
Gee, do we really THINK that a truly major change in His creation (ha eretz) would NOT result in modified instruction?
So . . . . .. you're saying, . . . . God . . . . . changed . . . . His . . . . Instruction?
How about a truly major change in Atonement and Sacrifice? How about when the creation kills the Creator? How about when the Sun is inexplicably
dark for 3 hours in the middle of the day? How about when the long dead are walking around town?
It seems to me that it just requires a WHOLE lotta ridiculous obfuscation to deny the simply fact that the "Torah Made Flesh" just really, truly MEANS what He keeps saying.
I have no idea what you are trying to say He keeps saying.
If the repeated prohibition (Deut. 4:2; 12:32, and the "last warning in the Book") prohibiting "adding to" and "subtracting from " is "done away with" not only do we call Him a liar, but (Matthew 23) a "hypocrite" as well. No way.
I think I just had a new revelation!!! If this view was true, it wouldn't matter about the claims of Revelation because Revelations was somehow added to Deuteronomy along with 60 other books!!! Is it just me, or does it seem nonsense to quote the Deuteronomy prohibition as stated above and use anything written past about 1500 BC as Scripture?