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In John 10 what does the word "gods" mean?

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DiscussingTheTopic

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Hello I have been thinking about the word translated "gods" in John 10, and I have not come up with an answer that feels fully satisfactory to me. I have come up with several possible meanings that are not polytheistic, but I am looking for other peoples ideas about how to correctly understand what is meant by "gods" in John 10. I also put some other scripture that might or might not help

psalm 82 NIV

1 God presides in the great assembly;
he gives judgment among the "gods":

2 "How long will you [a] defend the unjust
and show partiality to the wicked?
Selah

3 Defend the cause of the weak and fatherless;
maintain the rights of the poor and oppressed.

4 Rescue the weak and needy;
deliver them from the hand of the wicked.

5 "They know nothing, they understand nothing.
They walk about in darkness;
all the foundations of the earth are shaken.

6 "I said, 'You are "gods";
you are all sons of the Most High.'

7 But you will die like mere men;
you will fall like every other ruler."

8 Rise up, O God, judge the earth,
for all the nations are your inheritance.

[a] Psalm 82:2 The Hebrew is plural.

John 10 :31-38 NIV

Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, 32but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?"

33"We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."

34Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'[e]? 35If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came—and the Scripture cannot be broken— 36what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'? 37Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. 38But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." 39Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.
[e] John 10:34 Psalm 82:6

Exodus 7:1-7 NIV

Then the LORD said to Moses, "See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron will be your prophet. 2 You are to say everything I command you, and your brother Aaron is to tell Pharaoh to let the Israelites go out of his country. 3 But I will harden Pharaoh's heart, and though I multiply my miraculous signs and wonders in Egypt, 4 he will not listen to you. Then I will lay my hand on Egypt and with mighty acts of judgment I will bring out my divisions, my people the Israelites. 5 And the Egyptians will know that I am the LORD when I stretch out my hand against Egypt and bring the Israelites out of it."

6 Moses and Aaron did just as the LORD commanded them. 7 Moses was eighty years old and Aaron eighty-three when they spoke to Pharaoh.

2 Peter 1:3-4 NIV
3His divine power has given us everything we need for life and godliness through our knowledge of him who called us by his own glory and goodness. 4Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature and escape the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.
 
I agree with the scholar Dr. Leon Morris that this refers to the judges of Israel. Dr. Morris states, "Jesus points out that in Psalm 82:6 it stands written, 'you are gods' (the citation is exact, agreeing both with the Hebrew and LXX [which is the Greek translation of the OT Hebrew]). The passage refers to the judges of ISrael, and the expression 'gods' is applied to them in the exercise of their high and God-given office" (The New International Commentary on the NT: The Gospel According to John, p. 467).

Hope this helps.

Dr. Allen
 
Clarke's commentary might add a bit to what Keith said,

"Psa 82:6
Ye are gods - Or, with the prefix of כ ke, the particle of similitude, כאלהים keelohim, “like God.” Ye are my representatives, and are clothed with my power and authority to dispense judgment and justice, therefore all of them are said to be children of the Most High."

I bolded the key part. I don't know how it appears in the Septuagint, but I expect that the meaning of the prefix is maintained somehow in both the Septuagint and in John.
 
Those in positions of authority and to those whom the Holy Spirit has revealed the truths in the scriptures have a responsibility above what has been given others. Unfortunately numerous cults have used this very thing to claim that we (if properly prescribed to the particular cult's doctrine) will become a little god and have our own universe or at least planet to rule some day. Some even go so far as to say that Jesus is already one of these little gods and was sent for us to be an example to follow so that we can be good enough for God to choose as one of His little gods to rule the galaxies with. The word "gods" could be replaced with "the authorities".
 
Thank you everyone for the comments

33"We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."

34Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'? 35If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came—and the Scripture cannot be broken— 36what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'?

John 10:33-36 NIV

If it just refers to judges. Then what does this have to do with Jesus?

Why does Jesus SUPPOSEDLY (that is according to the footnotes not the new testament scripture) quote psalm 82 in reference to himself. They did not accuse him of blasphemy for claiming to be a judge but according to NIV, "because you, a mere man, claim to be God." And how come the Greek word transliterated Theos is used?

It seems that when Jesus uses this phrase he is talking about "gods" or "God"

If every reference to "gods" or "God" refers to judges in the new testament Jehovah witnesses and Muslims might try to argue that Jesus is not divine.

Can anyone help me here?
 
I have often found it necessary to disagree with the experts and this is another case. Often times their simplistic answers make no sense. I have another thought to consider. No guarantee that it is the right answer, but it makes more sense to me than a reference to judges or magistrates.
Ps 82:1
God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.

Ps 82:6-7
I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

Ps 8:4-6
What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him?
5 For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour.
6 Thou madest him to have dominion over the works of thy hands; thou hast put all things under his feet:

Gen 1:26-28
And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.
27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth.

My thought is that the Lord, in both Psalm 82 and John 10 is referring to mankind, His creation, created in His image and having dominion of this world as gods of this world. In my opinion, a measure of greater dominion was surrendered by Adam to Satan in the garden, enabling Satan to accurately be called the god of this world. Mankind are still gods to the creation. If you don't believe it ask your dog. Don't ask your cat though, they haven't read the memo. For what it is worth.
 
@ Discussing,

He doesn't quote Psalm 82 in reference to himself, he quotes it to reference a case where scripture called men 'gods' . If Psalms called the men to whom the law came 'gods' then it is not just to stone someone based only on calling a man God. If they want to stone Jesus they ought to do it based on his works on not on his claim to be God alone.

And as I pointed out, Psa 82:6 has a special prefix that changes the meaning of the word, the only time Elohim or Theos is used this way is in direct relation to that verse and prefix.

I dug out my paperback Greek New Testament and the Theoi (for lack of a Greek keyboard or the will to dig out the character map) is used here rather than Theos (Most concordances simplify by treating many variations as the same word, Strongs for example uses G2316 for both words, and probably other variants as well if there are any). Its the plural and as far as I can find it is never used in reference to the True God. 1 Corinthians 8:5 and Galations 4:8 are examples of theoi in other parts of the New Testiment.

@ John
Interesting take, I don't see that the interpretation is any different, and I think I agree with the extended application.
 
The word Elohim in the Hebrew can mean what we call a god, but it also can mean mighty men. But, in another view, HaSatan also used the fact that we can be like Elohim to lure Chavah to sin, thus setting the example for the rest of humanity to follow that the flesh wishes to be an elohim, and thus we have secular humanism which teaches that each one of us is an elohim.

Shabbat Shalom,
Scott
 
It's possible that "theos" in ancient times had a slightly subjective meaning. Something like this: "That which is worthy of the highest honour; that which is worthy of warm admiration." The Creator naturally qualifies, but so also, perhaps, much else. The japanese word "kami"--usually translated "god(s)"--has this meaning, according to a book on Shinto that I once read. Just an idea.
---Ryenwine
 
Ryenwine said:
It's possible that "theos" in ancient times had a slightly subjective meaning. Something like this: "That which is worthy of the highest honour; that which is worthy of warm admiration." The Creator naturally qualifies, but so also, perhaps, much else. The japanese word "kami"--usually translated "god(s)"--has this meaning, according to a book on Shinto that I once read. Just an idea.
---Ryenwine
Click to expand...

If I'm right, the point of psalm 82 would then be, that some people/ things regarded as "gods", (in the sense of being worthy of great honour etc) are in reality far from worthy.
 
Ryenwine said:
If I'm right, the point of psalm 82 would then be, that some people/ things regarded as "gods", (in the sense of being worthy of great honour etc) are in reality far from worthy.
Click to expand...

Which goes back to my point about how that HaSatan sold Chavah on the idea of eating the forbidden fruit - she would be like elohim. People like to lord over and rule others - trying to be like elohim - and we are told by Yahushua that if we want to be the first we must be the least, and if we want to be a ruler, we must be a servant to all. President Obama thinks that he is an elohim, but just because humans put that title on themselves, does not mean that YaHuWaH puts that title on them.

Scott
 
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