Re: How Do You Respond?
sweetlissa said:
I think it is very simple. Sexual relations belong inside of marriage. Women are not to be married to each other. Without marriage, sexual contact is a sin. So if two women can't be married to each other then sexual contact between them is a sin.
Rom 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
Rom 1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
To me this makes it very clear that sex between women is unnatural and not acceptable to God. I would rather er on the side of conservative, but since I have no inclination that way it is easy for me to say.
SweetLissa
Notice how it does not say women with women
But it does say men with men
So in ENGLISH Romans 1:26 says nothing wrong with woman with woman. But clearly something is wrong with man with man.
Also leviticus 18 and 20 say nothing wrong with woman with woman.
Perhaps the unnatural things were something like woman with animals and other things. Or even women with men they were not married to would be unnatural. Or unmarried woman masturbating or watching/performing sex shows/dressing immodestly, and so on and so forth. Anyway in ENGLISH it does not state that the unnatural thing is for women with women, just that women were doing something unnatural.
Also 1 corinthians 6:9 NIV
Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders
1 corinthians 6:9 KJV
(G2228) KnowG1492 ye notG3756 thatG3754 the unrighteousG94 shall notG3756 inheritG2816 the kingdomG932 of God?G2316 Be notG3361 deceived:G4105 neitherG3777 fornicators,G4205 norG3777 idolaters,G1496 norG3777 adulterers,G3432 norG3777 effeminate,G3120 norG3777 abusers of themselves with mankind,G733
G733
ἀρσενοκοίτης
arsenokoitēs
ar-sen-ok-oy'-tace
From G730 and G2845; a sodomite: - abuser of (that defile) self with mankind.
G730
ἄῤῥην, αρσην
arrhēn arsēn
ar'-hrane, ar'-sane
Probably from G142; male (as stronger for lifting): - male, man.
G2845
κοίτη
koitē
koy'-tay
From G2749; a couch; by extension cohabitation; by implication the male sperm: - bed, chambering, X conceive.
In 1 corinthians 6:9 it does not forbid woman from being homosexual but men specifically! The word in Greek for male is used.
So there are at least 5 verses that could be specifically against man with man homosexuality in the Bible and at best one verse directly and specifically against woman on woman homosexuality which is debatable in English. Although other verses to prevent adultery and fornication could possibly be used indirectly against lesbianism. [Except for they might not forbid it if both women were married to the same man are the women also married to each other?]
If two woman were married to the same man would there be anything BIBLICALLY wrong with them having relations with each other. I am not sure if that would be called sex outside or inside marriage.
Perhaps there are no verses against lesbianism because it is okay for a husbands wives to have lesbian relations with each other so long as they do not cheat on their husband with women he is not married to.
Or perhaps there is one verse against lesbianism if Romans 1:26 forbids lesbianism in the original language. But then it begs the question was lesbianism between two women married to the same man fine until the new testament?
Anyway either scripture forbids or does not forbid lesbianism. And whether lesbianism is allowed or forbidden would not allow or forbid polygamy.
I would like to know if anyone can clearly show if Romans 1:26 forbids or fails to forbid lesbianism.