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Footlights: Husband of One Wife

QMCO5

New Member
I am creating a separate post on this subject since it’s a bit long rather than adding a comment to an existing thread.

One of the objections raised against polygamy is Paul’s instruction that ministers have one wife, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 & Titus 1:6. The clause “husband of one wife” is actually ambiguous in the Greek text, which has led to much disagreement among expositors over its meaning. For the sake of discussion I will confine comments to the first reference, since the other two are essentially redundant.

FIVE COMMON INTERPRETATIONS:
1. Marriage as a requirement for ministry. 1 Timothy 3:2 starts the list of qualifications by saying the overseer “must be…” The requirement is supported by Paul’s command to be married in 1 Corinthians 7:2 and 1 Timothy 5:14. However, this could not be an absolute requirement since 1 Corinthians 7:7-8, 25-33 recommend remaining unmarried during a time of distress. Scripture also records a number of people who were servants of God with no indication of being married (e.g., Elijah, Elisha, Jeremiah, John the Immerser, Yeshua).

2. Polygamy restriction. Polygamy did exist among first century Jews and Jewish believers likely included polygamous men. Therefore, Paul sought to minimize competition for a minister’s time and service. Early Church Fathers favored this view. Later the Church went further and prohibited priests to be married. However, in the Jewish context being limited to one wife (ishshah) does not preclude having a wife of second degree, i.e., a pilegesh or concubine. It should be noted that Christians continued to practice concubinage after the first century until banned by the Council of Trent.

3. Only one wife in a lifetime. This position would preclude widower ministers from remarrying. The rationale is based on the potential burden of caring for a double family, posing a serious hindrance to ministry. The view seems to be reflected in the New Revised Standard Version, the New Century Version, God’s Word Translation, Good News Translation. However, the verse simply does not say, “an elder must be married only once.” Acts 6:3 lists only three qualifications for the first group of deacons, none of which related to marriage.

4. No divorce. This is a very common view among conservative Christians. Since the rule pertains to ministry qualifications, some contend that remarriage after divorce disqualifies from ministry. Some also contend that divorce on other than biblical grounds (variously defined) disqualifies from ministry. Some extend the restriction to include a previously unmarried man who marries a divorced woman. This position implies that divorce is a sin without redemption and relegates divorced persons to second-class citizens in the kingdom. As with the previous interpretation the verse does not say “an elder can never have been divorced and remarried.”

5. Marital fidelity. This view is based on taking the phrase literally as “man of one woman” or “a one-woman man.” This view emphasizes the character of the man rather than his marital status. This view seems to be reflected in the Complete Jewish Bible, the New Living Translation, The Message, The Contemporary English Version and Today’s New International Version.

LEXICAL CONSIDERATIONS
1. Greek words in the clause
Mias (numeral “one,” “alone,” “unity”), an adjective, derived from mia, feminine form of heis, in the genitive case. In the LXX (Septuagint, Greek Old Testament), mia is also used as “the first” in summaries (Genesis 2:1) and calendar references (Genesis 8:5), as well as one in contrast to another (Exodus 18:3).
Gunaikos (“woman” or “wife”), a noun, genitive case of gunē.
Andra (“man” or “husband”), a noun, accusative case of anēr. The accusative case means andra functions as a direct object.
The clause contains no definite articles (“the” or “a”) or conjunctions.

2. The genitive case
The genitive case is a case of definition or description. It functions primarily as an adjective, but the genitive case may be used in one of three ways (see below). Thus, the genitive case of mias-gunaikos attributes something to or describes something about andra.

A genitive of relationship is used to attribute a genital or marriage relationship, which would mean the andra has a marriage. A genitive of relationship would support the first two interpretations given above.

A genitive of possession expresses ownership, which would mean the andra possesses or owns the mias-gunaikos (a concept most Christians don’t like). A genitive of possession would support the third and fourth interpretations.

A genitive of quality expresses a simple description of the object, which would make mias-gunaikos a character quality of andra. Advocates of this view point out that the ministry qualifications are a series of character statements, rather than a list of persons or things the elder possesses. Also, the lack of definite articles supports this interpretation better than any other.

FINAL ANALYSIS
There is one other interpretation that I would offer based on assumption of a Hebrew undertext. That is, Paul originally wrote the letter in Hebrew and it was later translated into Greek. In Hebrew the phrase would be echad ishshah ish. Echad ishshah ish could be a statement of marriage unity, specifically the wife must be in unity with the husband, a reflection of her submission. The fact that Paul goes on to address the management of the elder’s household implies the wife must support her husband’s leadership for him to effectively balance household management with congregational management. Unity was Yeshua's prayer for his disciples (John 17:21-22).

A few polygamy advocates have suggested that mias-gunaikos should be interpreted as a reference to a first wife. However, this view seems to impose a nonsensical construction on the words. If Paul was offering support for polygamous ministers, there would be no need to say anything about a first wife, because obviously there would be one. Another view is that Paul is commanding “at least one wife,” a variation on the first interpretation above. However, there are no words in the Greek sentence that convey this meaning and no exegetical basis for inserting them. Paul would have had to use the Greek word kan, as is used in Acts 5:15 and 2 Corinthians 11:16, to convey the meaning of “at least.”

After much consideration I prefer the unity and fidelity interpretations. As far as polygamy is concerned, Paul's instruction neither supports nor prohibits having more than one wife, because that's not the issue he's dealing with. Nevertheless this interpretation would have practical importance for polygamous marriages.
 
Applause

I was hoping someone would post on this subject, as I don't have the ability to state it anywhere near as well as you just did, Q. I had realized that the re-translation of that word was quite amiss, specifically when trying to render it "first"

And thank you for the information regarding what it may say in Hebrew. I have thought for a while now that understanding a Semitic-born writer through the Greek language is just a bad idea... not to mention that it probably went through a translator to get to Greek.
 
Strictly speaking Mia is rendered as first in this argument because there isn't a simple way to explain the word in English. Its more for impact than for strict accuracy. It is that it means either first or one, but that it doesn't mean either one or first as we use the words in English. It has a connotation of unifiedness that is usually overlooked in this particular discussion, but in light of your conjecture it should be examined more closely. It also carries the connotations of a\an but is more specific than we would use a\an in English. It seems also to hold connotations of something primary or first. Its tough to express the whole meaning in any single given English word, the point of anyone retranslating it first would be to point out that it is not strictly restrictive, it does not preclude additions.

Of course first doesn't convey the meaning properly, as the word first expects more, and if he wanted to say at least he could have, as you said, used kan. For that mater if he wanted it to say first as we mean first he could have used proton, it seems much closer to what we mean by first in English.

Of course that falls in line with you're interpretation 1, and the only thing that can be said from that is from Don Milton work pointing out that the positions here mentioned are not phenomenal top end positions of authority such as Elijah had as a prophet, but they are human appointed jobs for keeping order in the church.

1Co 12:28 And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.

We are talking about the helps and governments of the church, the people you listed go above those ranks and are necessarily appointed by God.





But on another note, mias-gunaikos would be a strictly accurate way of expressing a need for unity. The Greek of two becoming one flesh uses mia in the same way. Before you told me what the Hebrew said it didn't occur to me to look at the passage in light of mia talking about unity. But if what you say is true then mia would be intended to express unity and any discussion of quantity is moot.

Reading each of these passages with this in mind does add something, without it the passages don't actually talk about the relationship with his wife, though they talk about many personal things and his relationship with his kids. That he should be required to raise good kids have nothing said about his relationship with his wife (other than that he should have one) really doesn't make as much sense as looking at the passage in the light that his relationship with his wife is of primary importance. Mia as an expression of unity fills the passage out more and harmonizes it with the body. I like that, and I believe that is a key test to see if it is a sound translation.

In either the case I made or the case you make this passage is passive concerning polygamy, and thats all we really need as there are plenty of cases for polygamy elsewhere. Like you said, its not the issue he is dealing with here.


I do very much like your case, but can you fill out why you said "Echad ishshah ish could be a statement of marriage unity," What uncertainty are we getting into by tying these together? Does the fact that mia can refer to marriage unity clarify or make the case certain. Is the only overlapping meaning between mias-gunaikos and Echad ishshah ish marriage unity (because if that is the only overlapping meaning then we can certainly deduce it is the intent of the author no mater which edition is first)

This view is very compelling, and I would like to adopt is because of the valuable meaning it adds to the passages if it is true, but I would like to know more about it.
 
Mia is used in the Septuagint to render echad, such as Genesis 1:5 where echad refers to the first day and Genesis 2:24 where echad refers to joining bodies in sexual intercourse. In the great theological statement of Deuteronomy 6:4, heis, the base form of mia, renders echad. Originally the Greek word heis meant simply the numeral "one." Greek and Hebrew are worlds apart and the translators of the Septuagint essentially commandeered words that had a point of commonality, and infused new meaning into them. The words never meant the same thing in both cultures. Thus, echad is a much richer word than mia, because as a theological term it reflects both a cohesive unity and a sense of "aloneness." The God of Israel is one in that He is not divided; the Father, Son and Spirit (all revealed in the Old Testament) work together in perfect harmony. He is also alone, that is there are no other gods existing anywhere. None of these meanings are present in mia. This is why I prefer the unity interpretation as well as the fidelity meaning that follows from it. The ministerial family must model what the Body of the Messiah should be.
 
BEATIFUL thead. Absolutely beautiful. This makes the MOST sense of any interpretation or explanation of Paul's intent I have ever heard.

(Though I do have to say that I also enjoy Don Milton's thesis that the intent was to EXCUSE poly families from the onerous tasks of Church Watchdog administration.) What's that they say about Torah study? Something like 36 layers of meaning to everything. Paul was a Torah scholar. Maybe he was being deep? :)
 
Thats essentially what any translation from one language group to another has to do. Echad becoming mia in the Septuagint is proof enough of the commonality to me, even the case where they used heis adds to the argument in context. That and some other things I've researched today lead me to take that as both the leading argument that this passage is not about polygamy, and that this interpertation fills out the meaning of the passages better in the case of normal scriptural study. Thanks for your work on understanding these passages.

I would say that Miltons points do also add something to the understanding of these passages, though I would rather use his argument to promote the need for church discipline and oversight than use it as a polygamy argument.
 
I was reading Job and it does not say that he had more than one wife. However, if he did have just one wife she was a remarkable woman. She had 10 children who Job lost as a result of what Satan put him through. Then after the troubles ceased, she then gave him 10 more children. That is 20 children from just one wife. If nothing else she certainly could have used some help.....twice. Also she went through just about everything Job went through, with him. After all this she seems to be remembered only for telling him to curse God and die. Now......what lady would really want to be an Old Testament monogamous wife anyway.
 
Hey,

Next time I take your picture, please say "cheese", lol
 
I am in way over my head linguistically, in this thread. But from a practical aspect, I would say the unity issue is not likely the emphasis God intended. I am in my 43 year of marriage and 42 of ministry. When we began our journey, my wonderful wife and I had an understanding that we would make no major decisions or moves unless we were both in agreement on it. This worked well for the first few years. But as children came along and my wife became more and more focused on her responsibility as wife, mother and homemaker, it became apparent that a shift of priority developed in our relationship. Both of us took our responsibilities very seriously and desired and attempted to assist the other in prime areas of duty. What evolved is what I believe the Word declares to be the norm. Male leadership and decision making, without requiring input from the wife. Her counsel was and is appreciated frequently, but unity was not and is not required, there is a division of labor and responsibility. No where else in scripture is spousal unity a requirement for leadership. I believe if that were the case, in the letter to Timothy, it would be connected to the advice about having the children in order and ruling his own house well. Leadership has always been a lonely profession and always will be. Not without closeness of family or cameraderie of good friends, but the authority of the family is always vested in the hands of one person. To borrow from President Truman's sign, "The buck stops here." Practically speaking, to make unity the understanding of this passage is to sail in uncharted waters Biblically and to turn the reins of family leadership over to Satan, for such attempts at unity are short lived at best and the enemy reigns in the resulting chaos.
 
I would agree that I do not think that mia is emphasizing unity here either. Faithfulness and fidelity would seem to be closer to my understanding at this point.
 
For Weltan,
I haven't posted in several months - just too busy with other things. However, receiving the email notification of more posts to my thread I couldn't resist responding to your statement about how many children Job's wife bore. To be technical about it, Job 42:13 does not identify the mother of the ten children as the wife in Job 2:9. It would not suprise me if that wife was rendered barren after her challenge to Job to "curse God and die." If you recall after David's wife Michal mocked him "she had no children to the day of her death" (2 Sam 6:23). It is very possible that Job took another wife or concubine who bore him those children. Who can say?
 
Good points. I remember when I worked at this business one time and said "how ya doing today" to a regular customer. He responded "great!", but his face looked all grumpy. So, I immediately followed up with "Could you tell your face", not knowing how he was going to respond. He laughed about it, though. In fact, we both got a kick out of it.
 
Yes, it is possible that Job did have more than one wife. Since the book was written with the emphasis on Job's trials and since marriage was just marriage whether mono or poly, there was not reason for it to specify that Job had more than one wife. And there are plenty of other examples in the Old Test.
 
Also on the original topic of the thread, "mia" as used for "one" wife has always had much discussion and this thread would be a good one for all new people to read. My personal favorite translation is to see it as "first" wife. The word is used as "first" elsewhere in the New Test. but not exclusively. ( Such as in Matt 28:1..."The first day of the week") The context of the verses about "one wife" (I Tim 3:2,12) is that it is listing a qualification.

It could be described as a love qualification. Remember, people could easily have more than one wife at that time. Men leading the church should be able to love much and be receiving love from God to dispense to others. A man that took a second wife and put his first wife out is not operating by love and is not qualified to lead the church. It has nothing to do with a disobedient first wife, or any wife's actions. A disobedient wife leaving does not disqualify him. But him not letting a first wife stay does disqualify him. It is his own qualification that is being mentioned. Christ spoke negatively of these hardhearted men in Mark 10:2-9 that divorced their first wife. When considered a love qualification it fits better with everything else. It is the best interpretation for removing everyone else’s motives and actions from qualifying a man for a position in a church. It also validates to me that plural marriage was specifically allowed and plural homes in the early Church were considered equally in all matters.

I also feel that when the love qualification is applied to these verses for poly men that it makes it very plain that these verses have absolutely nothing to do with monogamous, single or divorced people. This in itself unburdens whole groups of people who have been looked down on or excluded from Church leadership by some twisted denominational or local church bylaws based on misapplied scripture.

Are you divorced?……………..You are ok, not second rate or failures.
Are you single?……………… Your are ok, not second rate or incompetent
Do you have just one wife?…….No problem, Christ loves you
Has your wife left you?…………We will all pray for her and you but you can still lead.
You a widower? You can still lead. Don’t have to raise her from the dead so you have at least one wife.

The love qualification interpretation is so much smoother, fits better and gets a lot more people loved in a Christ-like manner.
 
It is always the quiet ones...... LOL

Weltan sits in the background here, looking at the forums, reading them, and instead of REACTING to posts, he actually RESPONDS to one....

Your description here is probably one of the best thought out explanations of what truly qualifies a leader than anything I have read. And in it, you have also summed up the Gospel. It truly is about love.

How many times have we added silly man-made rules to questions of leadership? When I read that about the widower, I both laughed, and my heart sunk, because I HAVE HEARD THAT EXPLANATION OF DISQUALIFICATION (Pray for God to raise her up, brother, so you can qualify for leadership!)

Thank you.
 
Very interesting take. I would like to dig into your overall concept some more. However, or me, the "mia" being "first" idea - the jury is still out. Blessings!
 
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