Greetings Ish, glad to see you are back. I enjoyed your breakdown of the Hebrew for kill/murder.
I don't have much time tonight but the few logic errors/fallacies that spring to mind are inconsistent comparison, presenting out of context (the Peter episode), intentionality fallacy, post hoc, there are a few others but these will suffice.
I totally get the light to heavy for the interpretation.
I see no need in revisiting the dietary permissions/restrictions. That's been done elsewhere and isn't pertinent to the Abraham/Isaac thread. (I think)
My question for this perspective is what was Peter refusing? Answer: a direct imperative order/command by God repeated 3 times! Though Peter heard a voice from heaven, He identifies the speaker as kyrios (Lord) who then tells him that what theos (God) has cleansed call not common.
The commonality between the Abraham/Isaac story and the Peter story is that both were commanded to do something apparently contrary to established norms for the purpose of obedience testing. In Abraham's obedience to the undeniable command of God, God both protected him and his son and blessed them exceedingly for exhibiting faith through obedience. In Peter's case, he failed because the issue wasn't dietary restrictions/permissions, it was a failure of faith through obedience. Thankfully, Peter finally gets it after it's spelled out in black and white and obeys by traveling/commingling/sharing the gospel with the Gentiles.
According to James 1:13, because of God's nature, he cannot be tempted with evil, therefore it is impossible for God to tempt man with evil. Thus, for God to command Abraham or Peter to do something apparently contrary to established norms cannot be considered evil in these cases, therefore obedience to the directly spoken command of God trumps all. If God commands it, obedience either does not violate His statutes, or there is an exception to the statute for obedience.
As to the nature of God, it is my contention that the works of his hands are conflated with His identity. It's kind of the "no True Scotsman" fallacy. People have used His actions at cherry picked moments to define His infinite nature. They have then created a god (straw man) that conforms to their definition of His nature (based on His actions in said cherry picked moment) and when another passage seems to contradict this created straw man nature, the discrepancy is ignored, rationalized, and discredited instead of being used to clarify and correct a misunderstanding of the true nature of God. There's no contradiction, the actions do not define the nature.
It is the nature of God and who He is that is unchanging. The evidence that He utilizes similar but different methods, permissions and restrictions for different eras, families and priesthoods simply point to a singular Creator who is not bound or restricted by the permissions and restrictions that He has established for His creations. He is bound by His nature, but not by His creations. There are lots of Scriptures that verify that He is bound by His nature, also lots of Scriptures that verify that He changes His mind at times on how to accomplish different things with His creations. None that I can find that state directly or indirectly, deductive or inductive that He is bound by the same restrictions as His creations. In fact the very nature of God would be proof that He is not bound by Creation's limitations.
Must . . . . Stop . . . . Now . . . .
Peace and love and all the Good stuff.